Saturday, 13 August 2011
Why is human labour taxed, and mechanised labour not?
Why should the government take far, far more money from a company with a human manned production line, that it would from one with an automated production line?
This isn't about increasing tax, its about distribution of the 'burden' - companies with large workforces appear to be penalised, in favour of those with automation.
If a company uses IT to run payroll/HR/accounts (or any other activity) instead of an office of workers - why should their tax bill be lower?
By hobbling the human as a resource, anyone would think the government wanted to increase unemployment!
Posted by Paul Perrin at 12:23